Submitted by admin on
I saw this article on Lacrosse Tribune website that got me thinking...
Driver in hit and run tested at 5 times limit
That guy test over 0.433 on breath test - most people would be dead. I can recall a case where a guy was driving drunk, ran into a motel with his truck and killed a man who was sleeping. He did get prison time for it and has since died.
Now, if he came from a bar, should the bartender be held responsible?
How many times lately do you hear about other people being charged when they have given drugs to someone who later overdosed? I know I have heard of a few.
Why is it okay to charge the drug pushers and not the bartenders?
It baffles me how they can even charge drug pushers, since those people did not force someone to do the drugs, but, at the same time, since drugs are not legal and drinking is, is that what separates it? Impaired is impaired and that is really what matters, whether a person was impaired by alcohol or drugs. If they left a bar and drove and killed someone, the responsiblity is on them, but at the same time, if someone gives or sells another person an illegal drug and that person ends up dying, then the drug dealer gets criminally charged? It really doesn't make any sense. There is no rhyme or reason to it in my opinion. It just seems like another way that the system is unfair.
A bartender could say, well, I don't know if that guy was going to drive when he left the bar and at the same time, that could also be true for a drug dealer, they also could say they don't know if that person is going to overdose or even use the drugs themselves at all, etc.
I know, life isn't fair, but, something just don't make any sense to me at all. We seem to pick and choose who is charged with what and who isn't and I don't know that there is much logic behind it sometimes. Maybe I just need to hear other perspectives on it, what do you think?
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Simpleton replied on
Why don't they charge the booze? It is the booze's fault that the person got drunk off of it!
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